Archive for May, 2018

How Is Jesus Our Passover?

May 16, 2018

The last part of I Corinthians 5:7 reads "Christ our passover is sacrificed for us." What did Paul mean calling Jesus our passover? We all remember the original passover as recorded in Exodus 12. The text informs us the Israelites were to take the blood of a lamb and "strike it on the two side posts and on the upper door post of the houses." This was a token to God to pass over that house when He killed all the firstborn in Egypt (the tenth plague). In this way all the Egyptian households lost their firstborn, while the Israelite households did not.

The analogy to Christ is that based upon His shed blood, God passes over us when it comes time to give us what we deserve for our sins (spiritual death, Rom 6:23). We can be so thankful for that, but we don’t receive such benefit unless we meet God’s stipulated conditions – trust and obey (II Thess 1:8). Are you trusting and obeying God like you ought (Heb 5:9)?

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Luke 12:46-48 And Sins Committed In Ignorance

May 8, 2018

Luke 12:46-48 illustrates “The lord of that servant will come in a day when he looketh not for him, and at an hour when he is not aware, and will cut him in sunder, and will appoint him his portion with the unbelievers. And that servant, which knew his lord’s will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes. But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more.”

This passage is so clear on the “sins of ignorance” subject, no explanation should be needed. However, notice ..

The servant of verse 48 knew NOT his lord’s will.

Nevertheless, that servant stood condemned for his actions that were committed in ignorance:

· the things that he did were worthy of stripes (condemnation)

· he received stripes (will there be any stripes in heaven?)

· he was cut in sunder, and appointed his portion with the unbelievers

Question: According to this passage, what is the condition of a saint or sinner who commits a sin of ignorance?

I Cor 15 Is Establishing The Resurrection Of Our Human Bodies

May 3, 2018

I heard my friend John Gibson preach a great sermon today which proved absurd the 70Aders position that I Corinthians 15 is not talking about the literal resurrection of our individual human bodies from the grave. As we will see, it is easy to determine from the context that it most certainly is.

The chapter begins in verse 4 and following by talking about the resurrection of Jesus’ body. Surely no one would deny Jesus’ resurrection was of his literal human body, especially in light of what Jesus said after his resurrection in Luke 24:39 “Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have.”

Back to I Cor 15 – Paul then asks in verse 12 “Now if Christ be preached that he rose from the dead, how say some among you that there is no resurrection of the dead?” This shows conclusively that the resurrection Paul is trying to establish in the chapter is the resurrection of our individual body because he suggests that if one claims this type of resurrection does not exist, then Jesus’ resurrection did not happen. This argument only makes sense if the resurrection under consideration is the same type of resurrection as the resurrection of Jesus – a bodily resurrection.

Paul makes the same point, this time in reverse, in verse 13 “But if there be no resurrection of the dead, then is Christ not risen.” How can that argument follow unless the resurrection Paul is contending for is a literal bodily resurrection as Jesus’ was?

Again in verse 16 “For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised.” If Paul was only talking about a figurative resurrection (having nothing to do with the human body) in AD 70, then how would its non existence prove Christ’s bodily resurrection non existent?

Next notice verse 20 “But now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept.” The first fruits of something means more of the same is to follow. In this case, since Jesus’ individual human body was raised from the dead, then the more to follow would have to be the resurrection of our individual human bodies.

The 70ADers position that these verses are just talking about the church springing to life when the old Jewish system was destroyed in AD 70 makes no sense at all in light of passages like Acts 24:15 that teach both the “just and unjust” will be resurrected. If only the church (the faithful) are under consideration, then how does that fit the fact that the unjust will also be raised? But if we are talking about a resurrection of our human bodies, then the unjust being included makes perfectly good sense – they will be resurrected unto condemnation (John 5:29).

Christians should learn a lesson from this absurd position: Let passages mean what they say instead of trying to “spiritualize” everything.