Archive for September, 2019

What Separates From God – Sin Or The Failure To Repent?

September 26, 2019

Does our sin separate us from God, or is it the lack of repentance that separates (causes our spiritual death) Let’s consider some relevant passages …

How about in the very beginning with the very first sin? What did God say in Gen 2:17? – “But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.” So spiritual death results from (occurs at the time of) sin, not later when a person fails to repent.

What about the Israelites according to Isaiah 59:2? – “But your iniquities have separated between you and your God, and your sins have hid his face from you, that he will not hear.” It is not the failure to repent per se that separates us from God, but our sin in the first place.

And lastly in the New Testament notice Rom 6:23a – “For the wages of sin is death.” Spiritual death occurs when we commit sin, any sin, even one sin. The failure to repent only compounds the problem by blocking the avenue we have to obtain forgiveness and restore our fellowship with God.

It is the same for belief. Unbelief is not what originally separates us from God; our sins does. Believing is part of accepting the solution for our separation from God due to our sin – John 3:16.

I challenge the reader to find even one passage in the Bible where a person sinned, but was not separated from God at the moment he committed the sin.

What Words Were Said By The Preacher When He Baptized A Believer?

September 19, 2019

Actually it is never recorded for us in the Bible what the baptizer said as he baptizes the candidate …

In Acts 2:14-40, what Peter said is recorded in:

v.14 But Peter standing up with the eleven, lifted up his voice, and said unto them

v.38 Then Peter said unto them

v.40 And with many other words did he testify and exhort, saying

But it is not recorded what is said by Peter when the actual baptizing took place:

v.41 Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

In Acts 19:2-5, what Paul said is recorded in:

v.2 He said unto them

v.3 And he said unto them

v.4 Then said Paul

Notice the quotation marks in the NKJV in verses 2, 3, and 4, but none in verse 5.

But there is no record of what is said by Paul when he baptized the Ephesians:

v.5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.

What about other conversion accounts in the book of Acts? What words were spoken over those who were baptized in such cases? (that is, according to the record)

Acts 8:12-13 the Samaritans? it doesn’t say

Acts 8:36-38 the Ethiopian eunuch? it doesn’t say

Acts 9:18, 22:16 Saul (Paul)? it doesn’t say

Acts 10:47-48 Cornelius and his friends? it doesn’t say

Acts 16:14-15 Lydia’s household? it doesn’t say

Acts 16:33 the Jailer’s household? it doesn’t say

Acts 18:8 the Corinthians? it doesn’t say

Conclusion: It is never recorded for us what words were spoken over those that were baptized, anywhere in the Bible.

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Does I Cor 14:34-35 Apply Today?

September 12, 2019

Some gospel preachers argue I Corinthians 14:34-35 is only talking about prophets’ wives, and since we don’t have prophets today, therefore the passage’s prohibition against women preachers does not apply today.

But as a general rule in this book, the second person refers to the church (1:2) or brethren (14:6,20,26,39) as a whole, while the third person is used when referring to the tongue speakers or prophets specifically (e.g., “him” in verse 28). Just as we do when we are writing a letter, Paul uses the second person to address who he is talking to (the Corinthians as a whole). Paul uses the third person to talk about (not to) a select group of the Corinthians, like the tongue speakers and the prophets. And since I Cor 14:34-35 is addressing “your women” (in the second person), then it naturally follows the passage is addressing the Corinthian women as a whole.

But let me emphasize that even if I am wrong about who the “your women” of verse 34 are, that is, if “your women” does refer only to the prophet’s wives, I Cor 14:34-35 would still apply to women today because verse 35 generalizes the passage to all women, then and now. Whoever the “your women” of verse 34 are, whether they are the Corinthian women as a whole or just the prophets’ wives, verse 35 says they should be silent because “it is a shame for women to speak in the church.” In other words, the Corinthian women (or the prophets’ wives) are not permitted to speak in the assembly, because it is wrong for women in general (all women everywhere) to speak in the church.

And so this passage certainly applies to all women everywhere, then and today!

Joined Is Not The Same As Bound Or Married

September 5, 2019

In discussing the coming together of husband and wife, Jesus made the following statement in Matt 19:6 – “What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.” Although a lot of writing has been done on the meaning and application of the words “married,” and “bound,” perhaps not as much writing has centered on what is involved in the word “joined” in this text. That is the purpose of this article.

Joined Is Not The Same As Bound

Just as it can be proven from Rom 7:2-3 that “married” and “bound,” though related, are not the same, it can also be proven from Rom 7:2-3 and Matt 19:6 that “joined” and “bound” are not the same. Rom 7:2-3 shows that being “bound” (obligated) to someone implies having sexual relations with someone else (even in state legalized marriage) is adultery. The only two exceptions to this are marriages contracted after the death of the original spouse (Rom 7:2-3), or after the putting away of the original spouse for fornication (Matt 19:9). God only “unbinds” (looses) a person from his or her spouse based upon one of those two scriptural events. It is impossible for a person to loose (“unbind”) himself from his spouse unscripturally. However, Matt 19:6 implies that a man can “disjoin” (put asunder) himself from his spouse unscripturally. The fact that God says not to do it, the fact that He teaches it is a sin to do it, shows it is possible for a man to do it. Since it is impossible for a man to loose God’s marriage “bound” in an unscriptural way, but it is certainly possible for a man to “put asunder” what God has “joined” in an unscriptural way, then “joined” and “bound,” though related, cannot refer to the same thing.

Joined Is Not The Same As Married

We find this same English word “joined” in I Cor 6:16 which reads “What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh.” Under consideration in both passages (Matt 19:6 and I Cor 6:16) is the joining together of “two” people into “one body,” or “one flesh.” Both passages quote Gen 2:24 to make this point, so they have to be talking about the same thing. The context of I Cor 6:16 involves fornication, and does not necessarily involve marriage at all. According to this passage, two single people who commit fornication are “joined” together (but not by God) into the “one flesh” relationship. Since they can be joined without being married, “joined” and “married” do not refer to exactly the same thing.

Joined Is The Sexual Union

I Cor 6:16 makes it obvious that “joined” refers to the physical (sexual) union between two people. Similarly, the word “joined” in Matt 19:6 also refers to the physical union between man and woman. Both passages speak of the joining of two people into the “one flesh” relationship, that is, the sexual union. The only difference between the passages is that, while in I Cor 6:16 a man and woman join themselves sexually without God’s approval, in Matt 19:6, God joins a man and wife sexually by legalizing, authorizing, approving of (I Cor 7:1-2), actually requiring (I Cor 7:3-5) the sexual relationship inside scriptural marriage (Heb 13:4).

How Can Man Put Asunder What God Has Joined?

Seeing then that the joining of man and wife in Matt 19:6 is the legalizing, authorizing, approving of, and requiring of the sexual relationship, how can man violate God’s instruction, “What God hath joined together, let not man put asunder”? One way he can violate this verse is by separating from his spouse, thereby not complying with God’s commandment regarding sexual relations between husband and wife as given in I Cor 7:3-5. Some Christians teach it is permissible to maritally separate as long as there is no divorce. But separation is condemned by many Biblical requirements (passages), one being the requirement of the man and wife to maintain the sexual union as taught by I Cor 7:3-5 and Matt 19:6. Other Christians even allow divorce as long as remarriage does not follow. But again, divorce (and the physical separation that accompanies it) is condemned by God’s requirement that man and woman “join” themselves physically (sexually) when they are married.


The “joining” of man and woman upon scriptural marriage is not the same as what the word “bound” entails. Neither is it the same as what the word “married” entails. Instead, “joined” refers to the sexual union that should be maintained between husband and wife. Anything that violates this sexual union is sin; it is a transgression of God’s instruction, “What God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.”