Archive for February, 2020

Does The NKJV Translation “Sexual Immorality” In Matt 19:9 Mean One Can Divorce For Lust?

February 27, 2020

In the NKJV version, Matt 19:9a reads this way – “And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery.” Some take that to mean a person may divorce their spouse for mental adultery (lust, pornography) since admittedly that is a form of “sexual immorality” in the way we use the phrase today. But I don’t think that’s what the translators intended to communicate (had in mind).

This phrase is from the Greek word “porneia” which is defined by Thayer’s Bible Lexicon as “illicit sexual intercourse.” Do you see how “lust” does not really qualify by that definition? Lust is not a form of intercourse. Many other standard versions translate “porneia” as “fornication.” It is possible to commit fornication in the heart (Matt 5:28), but Matt 19:9 is talking about actual fornication – following through on the physical act that one might be lusting for.

Consider an analogy. The Old Testament prescribed the death penalty for murder (Gen 9:6) but not for hating one’s brother – which in principle is the same as murder (in the sense I John 3:15 is talking about). Hating one’s brother is murder “in the heart” just like lusting is “adultery in the heart.” But if we can see that “murder in the heart” should not be punished with death (like actual physical murder should), then I think we can see in the same way that “fornication in the heart” is not a scriptural cause for divorce (like actual physical fornication is).

Conclusion: Matt 19:9 is referring to the actual physical act of fornication (as the only cause for scriptural divorce), not fornication “in the heart.”

What Does It Mean To Do Something “In the Name of Jesus”?

February 20, 2020

Matt 28:19 does not contradict Acts 2:38 because neither verse is talking about a certain formula of words that must be said when someone is baptized. That is easy to see when we notice the same phrase “in the name of the Lord Jesus” in Col 3:17 “And whatsoever ye do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus …” Obviously we don’t have to say a certain formula of words every time we do anything, do we?

But what does it mean, to do something “in the name of Jesus”? Consider the following definitions …

· “in the name of Christ” – “to do a thing … by one’s command and authority, acting on his behalf, promoting his cause” (Thayer, p.447)

· “in the name of” – “(a) in appeal or reference to; (b) by the authority of; as the representative of; (c) as belonging to.” (Webster’s New Twentieth Century Dictionary of the English Language, 1976 edition, page 1193).

Relating specifically to baptism in the name …

· Vine’s (page 100) – in the name … representing the authority of Christ … in recognition of the authority of … Matt 28:19, Acts 8:16

· Thayer (Strong’s #907) – “baptize in the name of Jesus Christ” – by the authority of the Lord, Acts 10:48

Water baptism must be done “for the remission of sins” (Acts 2:38), but it doesn’t matter what the baptizer actually says, as long as he teaches the truth.

Could Jesus Have Sinned? – Hebrews 5:8

February 13, 2020

Some say it was impossible for Jesus to sin, but consider Heb 5:8 – “Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered.”

Aren’t Jesus’ temptations a part of how Jesus learned obedience?

If it were impossible for Jesus to disobey (impossible for Jesus to sin), then Jesus didn’t really learn to obey – obedience would have been automatic for Him.

That gets us to one of the most amazing things about Jesus Christ.  He could have sinned, He was “in all points tempted like as we are,” yet He never sinned, not even one time in all His 33 years in this life.

Will Practicing Homosexuals Who “Accept” Christ Be Saved?

February 7, 2020

Gay Church members claim they are saved because they believe in Christ. It is true passages like John 3:16 teach believers in Christ will be saved, but does that include practicing homosexuals?

Even the devils have the kind of faith that is being referring to by the gay church:

· James 2:19 Thou believest that there is one God; thou doest well: the devils also believe, and tremble.

Will these devils be saved? According to gay church logic, they will be … because they believe in Christ.

Belief without the life to back it up is worthless:

· Luke 6:46 And why call ye me, Lord, Lord, and do not the things which I say?

· Matt 7:21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.

· James 2:24 Ye see … that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only

· Heb 5:9 Jesus became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him

Homosexual or not, if you are a believer, are you backing up your belief with a changed life?

The Bible teaches repentance is also required (in addition to faith):

· Luke 13:3 except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish

· Acts 19:18 And many that believed came, and confessed, and shewed their deeds

Repentance would require the cessation of all homosexual relations.

The “unrighteous (including homosexuals) shall not inherit the kingdom of God” (I Cor 6:9). That is why it is said of homosexuals who had become Christians, “such were some of you” past tense (I Co 6:11). They had changed. They weren’t homosexuals anymore.